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Magnetics question

2003 · Shift 0 · Q132
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Magnetics question

2003 · Shift 0 · Q132

JEE MainPhysicsMagneticsMCQ+4 / −1
A particle of mass MMM and charge QQQ moving with velocity v→\overrightarrow vv describe a circular path of radius RRR when subjected to a uniform transverse magnetic field of induction B.B.B. The network done by the field when the particle completes one full circle is
  1. A
    (Mv2R)2πR\left( {{{M{v^2}} \over R}} \right)2\pi R(RMv2​)2πR
  2. B
    zero
  3. C
    B  Q 2πRB\,\,Q\,2\pi RBQ2πR
  4. D
    B Qv 2πRB\,Qv\,2\pi RBQv2πR
View written solutionFree

Correct answer: B

  1. Magnetic force on a moving charge

    A charge QQQ moving with velocity v⃗\vec vv in a magnetic field B⃗\vec BB experiences the Lorentz force F⃗=Q(v⃗×B⃗).\vec F = Q(\vec v \times \vec B).F=Q(v×B).

  2. Direction of magnetic force

    Since the field is transverse, B⃗⊥v⃗\vec B \perp \vec vB⊥v at every instant. Therefore, the magnetic force is always perpendicular to the velocity.

    So, F⃗⋅v⃗=0.\vec F \cdot \vec v = 0.F⋅v=0.

  3. Work done by force

    The rate of doing work is dWdt=F⃗⋅v⃗.\frac{dW}{dt} = \vec F \cdot \vec v.dtdW​=F⋅v.

    Since F⃗⋅v⃗=0\vec F \cdot \vec v = 0F⋅v=0, dWdt=0.\frac{dW}{dt} = 0.dtdW​=0.

    Hence the magnetic field does no work on the particle at any instant.

  4. Over one full circular revolution

    Because the magnetic force only changes the direction of velocity, not its magnitude, the kinetic energy remains constant. Therefore, the total work done over one complete circle is W=0.W = 0.W=0.

  5. Option check

    • A: (Mv2R)2πR\left(\frac{Mv^2}{R}\right)2\pi R(RMv2​)2πR This is force ×\times× distance, but this is not valid here because force is always perpendicular to displacement.
    • B: zero ✅
    • C: BQ 2πRBQ\,2\pi RBQ2πR ❌ dimensionally not work.
    • D: BQv 2πRBQv\,2\pi RBQv2πR ❌ though dimensions match work, magnetic force does no work.

Therefore, the correct answer is B: zero.

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