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Electromagnetic Waves question

2020 · 9 Jan · Shift 1 · Q62
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  5. /2020 · 9 Jan · Shift 1 · Q62

Electromagnetic Waves question

2020 · 9 Jan · Shift 1 · Q62

JEE MainPhysicsElectromagnetic WavesMCQ+4 / −1
The electric fields of two plane electromagnetic plane waves in vacuum are given by E1→=E0j^cos⁡(ωt−kx)\overrightarrow {{E_1}} = {E_0}\widehat j\cos \left( {\omega t - kx} \right)E1​​=E0​j​cos(ωt−kx) and E2→=E0k^cos⁡(ωt−ky)\overrightarrow {{E_2}} = {E_0}\widehat k\cos \left( {\omega t - ky} \right)E2​​=E0​kcos(ωt−ky) At t = 0, a particle of charge q is at origin with a velocity v→=0.8cj^\overrightarrow v = 0.8c\widehat jv=0.8cj​ (c is the speed of light in vacuum). The instantaneous force experienced by the particle is :
  1. A
    E0q(0.8i^−j^+0.4k^){E_0}q\left( {0.8\widehat i - \widehat j + 0.4\widehat k} \right)E0​q(0.8i−j​+0.4k)
  2. B
    E0q(−0.8i^+j^+k^){E_0}q\left( { - 0.8\widehat i + \widehat j + \widehat k} \right)E0​q(−0.8i+j​+k)
  3. C
    E0q(0.8i^+j^+0.2k^){E_0}q\left( {0.8\widehat i + \widehat j + 0.2\widehat k} \right)E0​q(0.8i+j​+0.2k)
  4. D
    E0q(0.4i^−3j^+0.8k^){E_0}q\left( {0.4\widehat i - 3\widehat j + 0.8\widehat k} \right)E0​q(0.4i−3j​+0.8k)
View written solutionFree

Correct answer: C

  1. Given electric fields

E⃗1=E0j^cos⁡(ωt−kx),E⃗2=E0k^cos⁡(ωt−ky)\vec E_1=E_0\hat j\cos(\omega t-kx),\qquad \vec E_2=E_0\hat k\cos(\omega t-ky)E1​=E0​j^​cos(ωt−kx),E2​=E0​k^cos(ωt−ky)

At the origin and at t=0t=0t=0:

cos⁡(0)=1\cos(0)=1cos(0)=1

So,

E⃗1=E0j^,E⃗2=E0k^\vec E_1=E_0\hat j,\qquad \vec E_2=E_0\hat kE1​=E0​j^​,E2​=E0​k^

Hence total electric field is

E⃗=E0(j^+k^)\vec E=E_0(\hat j+\hat k)E=E0​(j^​+k^)


  1. Find magnetic fields of the waves

For an electromagnetic wave in vacuum,

B⃗=1c(n^×E⃗)\vec B=\frac{1}{c}(\hat n\times \vec E)B=c1​(n^×E)

where n^\hat nn^ is the propagation direction.

For wave 1:

The phase is ωt−kx\omega t-kxωt−kx, so it propagates along +x+x+x direction. Thus n^=i^\hat n=\hat in^=i^.

B⃗1=1c(i^×E0j^)=E0ck^\vec B_1=\frac{1}{c}(\hat i\times E_0\hat j)=\frac{E_0}{c}\hat kB1​=c1​(i^×E0​j^​)=cE0​​k^

For wave 2:

The phase is ωt−ky\omega t-kyωt−ky, so it propagates along +y+y+y direction. Thus n^=j^\hat n=\hat jn^=j^​.

B⃗2=1c(j^×E0k^)=E0ci^\vec B_2=\frac{1}{c}(\hat j\times E_0\hat k)=\frac{E_0}{c}\hat iB2​=c1​(j^​×E0​k^)=cE0​​i^

At origin and t=0t=0t=0,

B⃗=B⃗1+B⃗2=E0c(i^+k^)\vec B=\vec B_1+\vec B_2=\frac{E_0}{c}(\hat i+\hat k)B=B1​+B2​=cE0​​(i^+k^)


  1. Given particle velocity

v⃗=0.8cj^\vec v=0.8c\hat jv=0.8cj^​

Lorentz force is

F⃗=q(E⃗+v⃗×B⃗)\vec F=q(\vec E+\vec v\times \vec B)F=q(E+v×B)

So first compute v⃗×B⃗\vec v\times \vec Bv×B:

v⃗×B⃗=(0.8cj^)×E0c(i^+k^)\vec v\times \vec B=(0.8c\hat j)\times \frac{E_0}{c}(\hat i+\hat k)v×B=(0.8cj^​)×cE0​​(i^+k^)

=0.8E0(j^×i^+j^×k^)=0.8E_0\left(\hat j\times \hat i+\hat j\times \hat k\right)=0.8E0​(j^​×i^+j^​×k^)

Using cross products,

j^×i^=−k^,j^×k^=i^\hat j\times \hat i=-\hat k,\qquad \hat j\times \hat k=\hat ij^​×i^=−k^,j^​×k^=i^

Therefore,

v⃗×B⃗=0.8E0(i^−k^)\vec v\times \vec B=0.8E_0(\hat i-\hat k)v×B=0.8E0​(i^−k^)


  1. Total force

F⃗=q[E0(j^+k^)+0.8E0(i^−k^)]\vec F=q\left[E_0(\hat j+\hat k)+0.8E_0(\hat i-\hat k)\right]F=q[E0​(j^​+k^)+0.8E0​(i^−k^)]

F⃗=E0q(0.8i^+j^+(1−0.8)k^)\vec F=E_0q\left(0.8\hat i+\hat j+(1-0.8)\hat k\right)F=E0​q(0.8i^+j^​+(1−0.8)k^)

F⃗=E0q(0.8i^+j^+0.2k^)\vec F=E_0q\left(0.8\hat i+\hat j+0.2\hat k\right)F=E0​q(0.8i^+j^​+0.2k^)


  1. Compare with options

This matches:

C: E0q(0.8i^+j^+0.2k^)\boxed{\text{C: }E_0q\left(0.8\hat i+\hat j+0.2\hat k\right)}C: E0​q(0.8i^+j^​+0.2k^)​

So the derived answer agrees with the stored correct answer.

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