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Electromagnetic Waves question

2020 · 7 Jan · Shift 2 · Q46
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Electromagnetic Waves question

2020 · 7 Jan · Shift 2 · Q46

JEE MainPhysicsElectromagnetic WavesMCQ+4 / −1
The electric field of a plane electromagnetic wave is given by E→=E0i^+j^2cos⁡(kz+ωt)\overrightarrow E = {E_0}{{\widehat i + \widehat j} \over {\sqrt 2 }}\cos \left( {kz + \omega t} \right)E=E0​2​i+j​​cos(kz+ωt) At t = 0, a positively charged particle is at the point (x, y, z) =(0,0,πk)\left( {0,0,{\pi \over k}} \right)(0,0,kπ​). If its instantaneous velocity at (t = 0) is v0k^{v_0}\widehat kv0​k , the force acting on it due to the wave is :
  1. A
    parallel to k^\widehat kk
  2. B
    parallel to i^+j^2{{\widehat i + \widehat j} \over {\sqrt 2 }}2​i+j​​
  3. C
    antiparallel to i^+j^2{{\widehat i + \widehat j} \over {\sqrt 2 }}2​i+j​​
  4. D
    zero
View written solutionFree

Correct answer: C

  1. Given electric field

    E⃗=E0 i^+j^2cos⁡(kz+ωt)\vec E = E_0\,\frac{\hat i+\hat j}{\sqrt 2}\cos(kz+\omega t)E=E0​2​i^+j^​​cos(kz+ωt)

    For a plane electromagnetic wave, the magnetic field is perpendicular to both the propagation direction and the electric field.

  2. Find direction of propagation

    The phase is kz+ωtkz+\omega tkz+ωt.

    A wave of the form cos⁡(kz−ωt)\cos(kz-\omega t)cos(kz−ωt) travels in +z+z+z direction, while cos⁡(kz+ωt)\cos(kz+\omega t)cos(kz+ωt) travels in the negative zzz-direction.

    So propagation is along −k^-\hat k−k^.

  3. Electric field at the given instant and position

    At t=0t=0t=0 and z=π/kz=\pi/kz=π/k,

    kz+ωt=k(πk)+0=πkz+\omega t = k\left(\frac{\pi}{k}\right)+0=\pikz+ωt=k(kπ​)+0=π

    Hence, cos⁡π=−1\cos\pi=-1cosπ=−1

    Therefore, E⃗=−E0i^+j^2\vec E = -E_0\frac{\hat i+\hat j}{\sqrt 2}E=−E0​2​i^+j^​​

    So the electric force on a positive charge is along −i^+j^2-\frac{\hat i+\hat j}{\sqrt 2}−2​i^+j^​​

  4. Magnetic field direction

    For an electromagnetic wave, B⃗=1c n^×E⃗\vec B = \frac{1}{c}\,\hat n\times \vec EB=c1​n^×E where n^\hat nn^ is the propagation direction.

    Here, n^=−k^\hat n=-\hat kn^=−k^ and $\vec E \parallel -\frac{\hat i+\hat j}{\sqrt 2}$$

    Thus B⃗\vec BB lies in the transverse plane. But we do not even need its exact direction yet; we only need the magnetic force.

  5. Magnetic force on the particle

    The particle velocity at t=0t=0t=0 is v⃗=v0k^\vec v=v_0\hat kv=v0​k^

    Lorentz force: F⃗=q(E⃗+v⃗×B⃗)\vec F = q(\vec E + \vec v\times \vec B)F=q(E+v×B)

    Since B⃗\vec BB is transverse (in the xyxyxy plane), v⃗×B⃗\vec v\times\vec Bv×B also lies in the xyxyxy plane.

    More specifically, for a plane wave, B⃗=1cn^×E⃗\vec B = \frac{1}{c}\hat n\times \vec EB=c1​n^×E with n^=−k^\hat n=-\hat kn^=−k^.

    Then v⃗×B⃗=v0k^×(1c(−k^×E⃗))\vec v\times\vec B = v_0\hat k\times \left(\frac{1}{c}(-\hat k\times \vec E)\right)v×B=v0​k^×(c1​(−k^×E))

    Using vector identity, k^×(−k^×E⃗)=E⃗\hat k\times(-\hat k\times \vec E)=\vec Ek^×(−k^×E)=E because E⃗⊥k^\vec E\perp \hat kE⊥k^.

    Hence, v⃗×B⃗=v0cE⃗\vec v\times\vec B = \frac{v_0}{c}\vec Ev×B=cv0​​E

    Therefore, F⃗=q(E⃗+v0cE⃗)=q(1+v0c)E⃗\vec F=q\left(\vec E+\frac{v_0}{c}\vec E\right)=q\left(1+\frac{v_0}{c}\right)\vec EF=q(E+cv0​​E)=q(1+cv0​​)E

    So the total force is parallel to E⃗\vec EE.

  6. Direction of total force

    Since E⃗=−E0i^+j^2,\vec E=-E_0\frac{\hat i+\hat j}{\sqrt 2},E=−E0​2​i^+j^​​, the force is along −i^+j^2-\frac{\hat i+\hat j}{\sqrt 2}−2​i^+j^​​

    i.e. antiparallel to i^+j^2\frac{\hat i+\hat j}{\sqrt 2}2​i^+j^​​

  7. Correct option

    C\boxed{\text{C}}C​

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