JEE MainMathematicsSequences and SeriesMCQ+4 / −1
The common difference of the A.P. b1, b2, … , bm is 2 more than the common difference of A.P. a1, a2, …, an. If a40 = –159, a100 = –399 and b100 = a70, then b1 is equal to :
- A127
- B81
- C–127
- D-81
View written solutionFree
Correct answer: D
-
Let the A.P. have first term and common difference .
Then
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Given:
So,
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Subtract the first equation from the second:
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Now find using :
Hence,
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Compute :
Given:
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Let the A.P. have first term and common difference .
The common difference of the -A.P. is 2 more than that of the -A.P., so
-
Using :
-
Therefore,
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Checking options:
- A: ✗
- B: ✗
- C: ✗
- D: ✓
So the correct answer is Option D.
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