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Functions question

2009 · Shift 0 · Q29
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Functions question

2009 · Shift 0 · Q29

JEE MainMathematicsFunctionsMCQ+4 / −1
Let f(x)=(x+1)2−1,x≥−1f\left( x \right) = {\left( {x + 1} \right)^2} - 1,x \ge - 1f(x)=(x+1)2−1,x≥−1 Statement - 1 : The set {x:f(x)=f−1(x)}={0,−1}\left\{ {x:f\left( x \right) = {f^{ - 1}}\left( x \right)} \right\} = \left\{ {0, - 1} \right\}{x:f(x)=f−1(x)}={0,−1}. Statement - 2 : fff is a bijection.
  1. A
    Statement - 1 is true, Statement - 2 is true; Statement - 2 is a correct explanation for Statement - 1
  2. B
    Statement - 1 is true, Statement - 2 is true; Statement - 2 is not a correct explanation for Statement - 1
  3. C
    Statement - 1 is true, Statement - 2 is false
  4. D
    Statement - 1 is false, Statement - 2 is true
View written solutionFree

Correct answer: B

  1. Given function and its domain

We have

f(x)=(x+1)2−1,x≥−1.f(x)=(x+1)^2-1, \qquad x\ge -1.f(x)=(x+1)2−1,x≥−1.

Simplify:

f(x)=x2+2x.f(x)=x^2+2x.f(x)=x2+2x.

Since the domain is [−1,∞)[-1,\infty)[−1,∞), let us check whether fff is one-one and onto its range.

  1. Check whether fff is a bijection

For x≥−1x\ge -1x≥−1,

f′(x)=2(x+1)≥0,f'(x)=2(x+1)\ge 0,f′(x)=2(x+1)≥0,

and in fact f′(x)>0f'(x)>0f′(x)>0 for x>−1x>-1x>−1. So fff is strictly increasing on [−1,∞)[-1,\infty)[−1,∞). Hence fff is one-one.

Now find its range:

f(−1)=0−1=−1.f(-1)=0-1=-1.f(−1)=0−1=−1.

As x→∞x\to\inftyx→∞, f(x)→∞f(x)\to\inftyf(x)→∞. Since fff is continuous and increasing on [−1,∞)[-1,\infty)[−1,∞), its range is

[−1,∞).[-1,\infty).[−1,∞).

Thus, viewed as a function

f:[−1,∞)→[−1,∞),f:[-1,\infty)\to[-1,\infty),f:[−1,∞)→[−1,∞),

it is onto as well. Therefore, fff is a bijection.

So Statement 2 is true.

  1. Find the inverse function

Let

y=(x+1)2−1.y=(x+1)^2-1.y=(x+1)2−1.

Then

y+1=(x+1)2.y+1=(x+1)^2.y+1=(x+1)2.

Since x≥−1x\ge -1x≥−1, we have x+1≥0x+1\ge 0x+1≥0, so

x+1=y+1.x+1=\sqrt{y+1}.x+1=y+1​.

Hence

x=y+1−1.x=\sqrt{y+1}-1.x=y+1​−1.

Therefore,

f−1(x)=x+1−1,x≥−1.f^{-1}(x)=\sqrt{x+1}-1, \qquad x\ge -1.f−1(x)=x+1​−1,x≥−1.
  1. Solve f(x)=f−1(x)f(x)=f^{-1}(x)f(x)=f−1(x)

We need

(x+1)2−1=x+1−1.(x+1)^2-1=\sqrt{x+1}-1.(x+1)2−1=x+1​−1.

Add 111 to both sides:

(x+1)2=x+1.(x+1)^2=\sqrt{x+1}.(x+1)2=x+1​.

Let

t=x+1(t≥0).t=x+1 \quad (t\ge 0).t=x+1(t≥0).

Then the equation becomes

t2=t.t^2=\sqrt{t}.t2=t​.

Now write t=t1/2\sqrt{t}=t^{1/2}t​=t1/2:

t2=t1/2.t^2=t^{1/2}.t2=t1/2.

For t≥0t\ge 0t≥0, this gives

t1/2(t3/2−1)=0.t^{1/2}(t^{3/2}-1)=0.t1/2(t3/2−1)=0.

So either

t=0t=0t=0

or

t3/2=1  ⟹  t=1.t^{3/2}=1 \implies t=1.t3/2=1⟹t=1.

Thus,

x+1=0  ⟹  x=−1,x+1=0 \implies x=-1,x+1=0⟹x=−1,

or

x+1=1  ⟹  x=0.x+1=1 \implies x=0.x+1=1⟹x=0.

Hence

{x:f(x)=f−1(x)}={−1,0}.\{x:f(x)=f^{-1}(x)\}=\{-1,0\}.{x:f(x)=f−1(x)}={−1,0}.

So Statement 1 is true.

  1. Check whether Statement 2 explains Statement 1

Statement 2 says only that fff is a bijection, so f−1f^{-1}f−1 exists. But merely being a bijection does not explain why the solution set of

f(x)=f−1(x)f(x)=f^{-1}(x)f(x)=f−1(x)

is exactly {−1,0}\{-1,0\}{−1,0}. That required actual computation using the explicit forms of fff and f−1f^{-1}f−1.

So:

  • Statement 1 is true
  • Statement 2 is true
  • Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for Statement 1

Therefore, the correct option is

B.\boxed{B}.B​.
  1. Comparison with stored answer

Stored correct answer: CCC

But we derived BBB. The stored answer appears incorrect because Statement 2 is clearly true: on domain [−1,∞)[-1,\infty)[−1,∞), f(x)=(x+1)2−1f(x)=(x+1)^2-1f(x)=(x+1)2−1 is strictly increasing with range [−1,∞)[-1,\infty)[−1,∞), hence bijective.

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