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Functions question

2005 · Shift 0 · Q60
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Functions question

2005 · Shift 0 · Q60

JEE MainMathematicsFunctionsMCQ+4 / −1
Let f:(−1,1)→Bf:( - 1,1) \to Bf:(−1,1)→B, be a function defined by f(x)=tan⁡−12x1−x2f\left( x \right) = {\tan ^{ - 1}}{{2x} \over {1 - {x^2}}}f(x)=tan−11−x22x​, then fff is both one-one and onto when B is the interval
  1. A
    (0,π2)\left( {0,{\pi \over 2}} \right)(0,2π​)
  2. B
    [0,π2)\left[ {0,{\pi \over 2}} \right)[0,2π​)
  3. C
    [−π2,π2]\left[ { - {\pi \over 2},{\pi \over 2}} \right][−2π​,2π​]
  4. D
    (−π2,π2)\left( { - {\pi \over 2},{\pi \over 2}} \right)(−2π​,2π​)
View written solutionFree

Correct answer: D

  1. Given function

We need the range of

f(x)=tan⁡−1(2x1−x2),x∈(−1,1).f(x)=\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{2x}{1-x^2}\right), \qquad x\in(-1,1).f(x)=tan−1(1−x22x​),x∈(−1,1).

We must choose the interval BBB such that f:(−1,1)→Bf:(-1,1)\to Bf:(−1,1)→B is both one-one and onto.


  1. Use the tangent double-angle identity

Recall:

tan⁡(2θ)=2tan⁡θ1−tan⁡2θ.\tan(2\theta)=\frac{2\tan\theta}{1-\tan^2\theta}.tan(2θ)=1−tan2θ2tanθ​.

Let

x=tan⁡θ.x=\tan\theta.x=tanθ.

Since x∈(−1,1)x\in(-1,1)x∈(−1,1), we have

θ∈(−π4,π4).\theta\in\left(-\frac{\pi}{4},\frac{\pi}{4}\right).θ∈(−4π​,4π​).

Then

2x1−x2=2tan⁡θ1−tan⁡2θ=tan⁡(2θ).\frac{2x}{1-x^2}=\frac{2\tan\theta}{1-\tan^2\theta}=\tan(2\theta).1−x22x​=1−tan2θ2tanθ​=tan(2θ).

So,

f(x)=tan⁡−1(tan⁡2θ).f(x)=\tan^{-1}(\tan 2\theta).f(x)=tan−1(tan2θ).

Now since

2θ∈(−π2,π2),2\theta\in\left(-\frac{\pi}{2},\frac{\pi}{2}\right),2θ∈(−2π​,2π​),

and tan⁡−1(tan⁡y)=y\tan^{-1}(\tan y)=ytan−1(tany)=y for y∈(−π2,π2)y\in\left(-\frac{\pi}{2},\frac{\pi}{2}\right)y∈(−2π​,2π​), we get

f(x)=2θ=2tan⁡−1x.f(x)=2\theta=2\tan^{-1}x.f(x)=2θ=2tan−1x.
  1. Determine the range

Since x∈(−1,1)x\in(-1,1)x∈(−1,1) and tan⁡−1x\tan^{-1}xtan−1x is strictly increasing,

tan⁡−1x∈(−π4,π4).\tan^{-1}x\in\left(-\frac{\pi}{4},\frac{\pi}{4}\right).tan−1x∈(−4π​,4π​).

Therefore,

f(x)=2tan⁡−1x∈(−π2,π2).f(x)=2\tan^{-1}x\in\left(-\frac{\pi}{2},\frac{\pi}{2}\right).f(x)=2tan−1x∈(−2π​,2π​).

Also, the endpoints are not attained because x=−1x=-1x=−1 and x=1x=1x=1 are not in the domain.

Hence the range is

(−π2,π2).\boxed{\left(-\frac{\pi}{2},\frac{\pi}{2}\right)}.(−2π​,2π​)​.
  1. Check one-one

The function

f(x)=2tan⁡−1xf(x)=2\tan^{-1}xf(x)=2tan−1x

is strictly increasing on (−1,1)(-1,1)(−1,1) because tan⁡−1x\tan^{-1}xtan−1x is strictly increasing. Hence fff is one-one.


  1. Check onto for the options

For f:(−1,1)→Bf:(-1,1)\to Bf:(−1,1)→B to be onto, BBB must equal the range of fff, i.e.

B=(−π2,π2).B=\left(-\frac{\pi}{2},\frac{\pi}{2}\right).B=(−2π​,2π​).

Now evaluate options:

  • A: (0,π2)\left(0,\frac{\pi}{2}\right)(0,2π​) — not correct, misses negative values.
  • B: [0,π2)\left[0,\frac{\pi}{2}\right)[0,2π​) — not correct, misses negative values and includes 000 as left endpoint formatting issue only, but still not full range.
  • C: [−π2,π2]\left[-\frac{\pi}{2},\frac{\pi}{2}\right][−2π​,2π​] — not correct, includes endpoints not attained.
  • D: (−π2,π2)\left(-\frac{\pi}{2},\frac{\pi}{2}\right)(−2π​,2π​) — correct.

  1. Final answer

Therefore, the interval BBB for which fff is both one-one and onto is

(−π2,π2).\boxed{\left(-\frac{\pi}{2},\frac{\pi}{2}\right)}.(−2π​,2π​)​.

So the correct option is D.

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