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Functions question

2008 · Shift 0 · Q32
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Functions question

2008 · Shift 0 · Q32

JEE MainMathematicsFunctionsMCQ+4 / −1
Let f:N→Yf:N \to Yf:N→Y be a function defined as f(x) = 4x + 3 where Y = { y ∈\in∈ N, y = 4x + 3 for some x ∈\in∈ N }. Show that f is invertible and its inverse is
  1. A
    g(y)=3y+44g\left( y \right) = {{3y + 4} \over 4}g(y)=43y+4​
  2. B
    g(y)=4+y+34g\left( y \right) = 4 + {{y + 3} \over 4}g(y)=4+4y+3​
  3. C
    g(y)=y+34g\left( y \right) = {{y + 3} \over 4}g(y)=4y+3​
  4. D
    g(y)=y−34g\left( y \right) = {{y - 3} \over 4}g(y)=4y−3​
View written solutionFree

Correct answer: D

  1. Given function

We have f:N→Y,f(x)=4x+3f:N \to Y, \qquad f(x)=4x+3f:N→Y,f(x)=4x+3 where Y={y∈N∣y=4x+3 for some x∈N}.Y=\{y\in N\mid y=4x+3 \text{ for some } x\in N\}.Y={y∈N∣y=4x+3 for some x∈N}.

So the codomain YYY is exactly the set of all numbers of the form 4x+34x+34x+3.


  1. Show that fff is one-one

Suppose f(x1)=f(x2).f(x_1)=f(x_2).f(x1​)=f(x2​). Then 4x1+3=4x2+34x_1+3=4x_2+34x1​+3=4x2​+3 ⇒4x1=4x2\Rightarrow 4x_1=4x_2⇒4x1​=4x2​ ⇒x1=x2.\Rightarrow x_1=x_2.⇒x1​=x2​.

Hence, fff is injective (one-one).


  1. Show that fff is onto

Take any y∈Yy\in Yy∈Y. By definition of YYY, there exists some x∈Nx\in Nx∈N such that y=4x+3.y=4x+3.y=4x+3. But this means y=f(x).y=f(x).y=f(x). So every element of YYY is the image of some element of NNN.

Hence, fff is surjective (onto).


  1. Therefore, fff is invertible

Since fff is both one-one and onto, it is bijective, so it has an inverse.


  1. Find the inverse

Let y=4x+3.y=4x+3.y=4x+3. Solve for xxx: y−3=4xy-3=4xy−3=4x x=y−34.x=\frac{y-3}{4}.x=4y−3​.

Therefore, f−1(y)=g(y)=y−34.f^{-1}(y)=g(y)=\frac{y-3}{4}.f−1(y)=g(y)=4y−3​.


  1. Check with the options
  • A: 3y+44\frac{3y+4}{4}43y+4​ — incorrect
  • B: 4+y+344+\frac{y+3}{4}4+4y+3​ — incorrect
  • C: y+34\frac{y+3}{4}4y+3​ — incorrect
  • D: y−34\frac{y-3}{4}4y−3​ — correct

Also verify: g(f(x))=(4x+3)−34=xg(f(x))=\frac{(4x+3)-3}{4}=xg(f(x))=4(4x+3)−3​=x and for y∈Yy\in Yy∈Y, f(g(y))=4(y−34)+3=y.f(g(y))=4\left(\frac{y-3}{4}\right)+3=y.f(g(y))=4(4y−3​)+3=y.

So the inverse is indeed g(y)=y−34.g(y)=\frac{y-3}{4}.g(y)=4y−3​.


  1. Final answer

The correct option is D.

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