JEE MainMathematicsApplication of DerivativesMCQ+4 / −1
Let , and be a function such that for all . Then is equal to :
- A42
- B7
- C1
- D14
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Correct answer: D
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Since for all , the function is the inverse of .
Hence,
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We need to find .
First, find . Since is the inverse of , this means we need the value of such that
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Compute :
Therefore,
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Use the derivative formula for an inverse function:
Here, and the corresponding , so
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Differentiate :
Now evaluate at :
Thus,
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Now compute
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Therefore, the correct option is
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