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Application of Derivatives question

2024 · 8 Apr · Shift 1 · Q41
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  5. /2024 · 8 Apr · Shift 1 · Q41

Application of Derivatives question

2024 · 8 Apr · Shift 1 · Q41

JEE MainMathematicsApplication of DerivativesMCQ+4 / −1
For the function f(x)=(cos⁡x)−x+1,x∈Rf(x)=(\cos x)-x+1, x \in \mathbb{R}f(x)=(cosx)−x+1,x∈R, between the following two statements (S1) f(x)=0f(x)=0f(x)=0 for only one value of xxx in [0,π][0, \pi][0,π]. (S2) f(x)f(x)f(x) is decreasing in [0,π2]\left[0, \frac{\pi}{2}\right][0,2π​] and increasing in [π2,π]\left[\frac{\pi}{2}, \pi\right][2π​,π].
  1. A
    Both (S1) and (S2) are incorrect.
  2. B
    Only (S1) is correct.
  3. C
    Only (S2) is correct.
  4. D
    Both (S1) and (S2) are correct.
View written solutionFree

Correct answer: B

  1. Given function

    f(x)=cos⁡x−x+1,x∈Rf(x)=\cos x-x+1, \qquad x\in \mathbb Rf(x)=cosx−x+1,x∈R

We need to check the truth of:

  • (S1) f(x)=0f(x)=0f(x)=0 for only one value of xxx in [0,π][0,\pi][0,π].
  • (S2) f(x)f(x)f(x) is decreasing in [0,π2]\left[0,\frac{\pi}{2}\right][0,2π​] and increasing in [π2,π]\left[\frac{\pi}{2},\pi\right][2π​,π].

  1. Check monotonicity using derivative

Differentiate:

f′(x)=−sin⁡x−1f'(x)=-\sin x-1f′(x)=−sinx−1

Now for x∈[0,π]x\in[0,\pi]x∈[0,π], we know

sin⁡x∈[0,1]\sin x\in[0,1]sinx∈[0,1]

So,

f′(x)=−(sin⁡x+1)≤−1<0f'(x)=-(\sin x+1)\le -1<0f′(x)=−(sinx+1)≤−1<0

Thus f′(x)f'(x)f′(x) is strictly negative for every x∈[0,π]x\in[0,\pi]x∈[0,π].

Hence, f(x)f(x)f(x) is strictly decreasing on the entire interval [0,π][0,\pi][0,π].

So:

  • it is decreasing on [0,π2]\left[0,\frac{\pi}{2}\right][0,2π​],
  • but it is not increasing on [π2,π]\left[\frac{\pi}{2},\pi\right][2π​,π].

Therefore, (S2) is false.


  1. Check number of zeros in [0,π][0,\pi][0,π]

Since f(x)f(x)f(x) is continuous and strictly decreasing on [0,π][0,\pi][0,π], it can have at most one zero there.

Now evaluate endpoints:

f(0)=cos⁡0−0+1=1+1=2>0f(0)=\cos 0-0+1=1+1=2>0f(0)=cos0−0+1=1+1=2>0

f(π)=cos⁡π−π+1=−1−π+1=−π<0f(\pi)=\cos \pi-\pi+1=-1-\pi+1=-\pi<0f(π)=cosπ−π+1=−1−π+1=−π<0

Since f(0)>0f(0)>0f(0)>0 and f(π)<0f(\pi)<0f(π)<0, by the Intermediate Value Theorem there is at least one root in (0,π)(0,\pi)(0,π).

Because the function is strictly decreasing, there can be only one such root.

Therefore, (S1) is true.


  1. Evaluate options
  • (S1): True
  • (S2): False

So the correct option is:

B: Only (S1) is correct\boxed{\text{B: Only (S1) is correct}}B: Only (S1) is correct​


  1. Comparison with stored answer

Stored correct answer: B

Our derived answer: B

So they agree.

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