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Electromagnetic Waves question

2023 · 24 Jan · Shift 1 · Q62
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  5. /2023 · 24 Jan · Shift 1 · Q62

Electromagnetic Waves question

2023 · 24 Jan · Shift 1 · Q62

JEE MainPhysicsElectromagnetic WavesMCQ+4 / −1
In E→\overrightarrow EE and K→\overrightarrow KK represent electric field and propagation vectors of the EM waves in vacuum, then magnetic field vector is given by : (ω\omegaω - angular frequency) :
  1. A
    1ω(K‾×E‾){1 \over \omega }\left( {\overline K \times \overline E } \right)ω1​(K×E)
  2. B
    K‾×E‾\overline K \times \overline EK×E
  3. C
    ω(K‾×E‾)\omega \left( {\overline K \times \overline E } \right)ω(K×E)
  4. D
    ω(E‾×K‾)\omega \left( {\overline E \times \overline K } \right)ω(E×K)
View written solutionFree

Correct answer: A

  1. Use the plane-wave relation in vacuum

For an electromagnetic plane wave in vacuum,

E⃗,  B⃗,  K⃗\vec E,\; \vec B,\; \vec KE,B,K

are mutually perpendicular, and the wave propagates along the wave vector K⃗\vec KK.

Also, from Maxwell's equations for a plane wave,

B⃗=1ω(K⃗×E⃗).\vec B = \frac{1}{\omega}(\vec K \times \vec E).B=ω1​(K×E).
  1. Why this relation holds

For a plane wave,

E⃗=E⃗0ei(K⃗⋅r⃗−ωt)\vec E = \vec E_0 e^{i(\vec K\cdot \vec r - \omega t)}E=E0​ei(K⋅r−ωt)

and using Faraday's law,

∇×E⃗=−∂B⃗∂t.\nabla \times \vec E = -\frac{\partial \vec B}{\partial t}.∇×E=−∂t∂B​.

For the above form,

∇×E⃗=i(K⃗×E⃗),\nabla \times \vec E = i(\vec K \times \vec E),∇×E=i(K×E),

and

−∂B⃗∂t=iωB⃗.-\frac{\partial \vec B}{\partial t} = i\omega \vec B.−∂t∂B​=iωB.

Therefore,

i(K⃗×E⃗)=iωB⃗i(\vec K \times \vec E)= i\omega \vec Bi(K×E)=iωB

which gives

B⃗=1ω(K⃗×E⃗).\vec B = \frac{1}{\omega}(\vec K \times \vec E).B=ω1​(K×E).
  1. Check the options
  • A: 1ω(K⃗×E⃗)\frac{1}{\omega}(\vec K \times \vec E)ω1​(K×E) ✔️
  • B: K⃗×E⃗\vec K \times \vec EK×E ✖️ missing factor 1ω\frac{1}{\omega}ω1​
  • C: ω(K⃗×E⃗)\omega(\vec K \times \vec E)ω(K×E) ✖️ wrong factor
  • D: ω(E⃗×K⃗)\omega(\vec E \times \vec K)ω(E×K) ✖️ wrong factor and opposite cross-product order
  1. Final answer

The correct magnetic field vector is

B⃗=1ω(K⃗×E⃗).\boxed{\vec B = \frac{1}{\omega}(\vec K \times \vec E)}.B=ω1​(K×E)​.

So the correct option is A.

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