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Electromagnetic Waves question

2020 · 3 Sep · Shift 1 · Q62
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Electromagnetic Waves question

2020 · 3 Sep · Shift 1 · Q62

JEE MainPhysicsElectromagnetic WavesMCQ+4 / −1
The magnetic field of a plane electromagnetic wave is B→=3×10−8sin⁡[200π(y+ct)]i^\overrightarrow B = 3 \times {10^{ - 8}}\sin \left[ {200\pi \left( {y + ct} \right)} \right]\widehat iB=3×10−8sin[200π(y+ct)]i T where c = 3 ×\times× 108 ms–1 is the speed of light. The corresponding electric field is :
  1. A
    E→=−10−6sin⁡[200π(y+ct)]k^\overrightarrow E = - {10^{ - 6}}\sin \left[ {200\pi \left( {y + ct} \right)} \right]\widehat kE=−10−6sin[200π(y+ct)]k V/m
  2. B
    E→=−9sin⁡[200π(y+ct)]k^\overrightarrow E = - 9\sin \left[ {200\pi \left( {y + ct} \right)} \right]\widehat kE=−9sin[200π(y+ct)]k V/m
  3. C
    E→=9sin⁡[200π(y+ct)]k^\overrightarrow E = 9\sin \left[ {200\pi \left( {y + ct} \right)} \right]\widehat kE=9sin[200π(y+ct)]k V/m
  4. D
    E→=3×10−8sin⁡[200π(y+ct)]k^\overrightarrow E = 3 \times {10^{ - 8}}\sin \left[ {200\pi \left( {y + ct} \right)} \right]\widehat kE=3×10−8sin[200π(y+ct)]k
View written solutionFree

Correct answer: B

  1. Given magnetic field

B⃗=3×10−8sin⁡[200π(y+ct)]i^  T\vec B = 3\times 10^{-8}\sin\left[200\pi (y+ct)\right]\hat i\;\text{T}B=3×10−8sin[200π(y+ct)]i^T

So,

  • magnetic field amplitude is B0=3×10−8 TB_0 = 3\times 10^{-8}\,\text{T}B0​=3×10−8T
  • direction of B⃗\vec BB is along i^\hat ii^.

  1. Direction of propagation

The phase is

200π(y+ct)200\pi (y+ct)200π(y+ct)

A wave of the form sin⁡(ky−ωt)\sin(k y - \omega t)sin(ky−ωt) travels in +y+y+y direction, while

sin⁡(ky+ωt)\sin(k y + \omega t)sin(ky+ωt)

travels in the −y-y−y direction.

Hence this electromagnetic wave propagates along

−j^-\hat j−j^​


  1. Relation between E⃗\vec EE, B⃗\vec BB and direction of propagation

For an electromagnetic wave,

E⃗×B⃗\vec E \times \vec BE×B

gives the direction of propagation.

Here propagation is along −j^-\hat j−j^​, and

B⃗∥i^\vec B \parallel \hat iB∥i^

Let E⃗\vec EE be along ±k^\pm \hat k±k^.

Now,

k^×i^=j^\hat k \times \hat i = \hat jk^×i^=j^​

So to get −j^-\hat j−j^​, we need

(−k^)×i^=−j^(-\hat k)\times \hat i = -\hat j(−k^)×i^=−j^​

Therefore,

E⃗ is along −k^\vec E \text{ is along } -\hat kE is along −k^


  1. Magnitude relation

For electromagnetic waves in free space,

E0=cB0E_0 = c B_0E0​=cB0​

So,

E0=(3×108)(3×10−8)=9 V/mE_0 = (3\times 10^8)(3\times 10^{-8}) = 9\,\text{V/m}E0​=(3×108)(3×10−8)=9V/m


  1. Write the electric field

Since E⃗\vec EE has the same phase as B⃗\vec BB and points along −k^-\hat k−k^,

E⃗=−9sin⁡[200π(y+ct)]k^  V/m\vec E = -9\sin\left[200\pi (y+ct)\right]\hat k\;\text{V/m}E=−9sin[200π(y+ct)]k^V/m


  1. Check options
  • A: magnitude wrong
  • B: correct magnitude, correct direction, correct phase
  • C: wrong direction
  • D: wrong magnitude

Thus the correct option is

B\boxed{\text{B}}B​

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