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Probability question

2025 · 2 Apr · Shift 1 · Q46
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Probability question

2025 · 2 Apr · Shift 1 · Q46

JEE MainMathematicsProbabilityNumerical+4 / −1
Three distinct numbers are selected randomly from the set {1,2,3,…,40}\{1,2,3, \ldots, 40\}{1,2,3,…,40}. If the probability, that the selected numbers are in an increasing G.P., is mn,gcd⁡(m,n)=1\frac{m}{n}, \operatorname{gcd}(m, n)=1nm​,gcd(m,n)=1, then m+nm+nm+n is equal to ‾\underline{\hspace{2cm}}​ .
Numerical answer
View written solutionFree

Correct answer: 2477

  1. Total number of ways to choose 3 distinct numbers from {1,2,…,40}\{1,2,\dots,40\}{1,2,…,40}:
(403)=40⋅39⋅386=9880\binom{40}{3}=\frac{40\cdot39\cdot38}{6}=9880(340​)=640⋅39⋅38​=9880

Since the numbers are selected and then checked whether they are in an increasing G.P., each valid set of 3 distinct numbers corresponds to exactly one increasing triple.


  1. Form of a 3-term increasing G.P.

Let the three numbers be

a,  ar,  ar2a,\; ar,\; ar^2a,ar,ar2

with a,ar,ar2∈{1,2,…,40}a, ar, ar^2 \in \{1,2,\dots,40\}a,ar,ar2∈{1,2,…,40} and r>1r>1r>1.

Because all three terms are integers, write the common ratio in lowest terms as

r=pq,gcd⁡(p,q)=1,p>q≥1.r=\frac{p}{q}, \qquad \gcd(p,q)=1, \quad p>q\ge 1.r=qp​,gcd(p,q)=1,p>q≥1.

Then the terms become

a,  apq,  ap2q2a,\; a\frac{p}{q},\; a\frac{p^2}{q^2}a,aqp​,aq2p2​

For these to all be integers, aaa must be divisible by q2q^2q2. So let

a=kq2a=kq^2a=kq2

Then the three terms are

kq2,  kpq,  kp2kq^2,\; kpq,\; kp^2kq2,kpq,kp2

Thus every increasing integer G.P. has the form

(kq2,  kpq,  kp2)(kq^2,\;kpq,\;kp^2)(kq2,kpq,kp2)

where p>qp>qp>q, gcd⁡(p,q)=1\gcd(p,q)=1gcd(p,q)=1, and

kp2≤40.kp^2\le 40.kp2≤40.

So for each coprime pair (p,q)(p,q)(p,q) with p>qp>qp>q, the number of valid choices of kkk is

⌊40p2⌋.\left\lfloor \frac{40}{p^2}\right\rfloor.⌊p240​⌋.

Also, for a fixed triple, the reduced ratio p/qp/qp/q is unique, so there is no overcounting.


  1. Find all possible values of ppp

Since kp2≤40kp^2\le 40kp2≤40 and k≥1k\ge 1k≥1, we need

p2≤40  ⟹  p≤6.p^2\le 40 \implies p\le 6.p2≤40⟹p≤6.

So we check p=2,3,4,5,6p=2,3,4,5,6p=2,3,4,5,6.


  1. Count valid triples for each ppp

Case p=2p=2p=2

Possible q<2q<2q<2 with gcd⁡(2,q)=1\gcd(2,q)=1gcd(2,q)=1:

  • q=1q=1q=1

Number of kkk:

⌊4022⌋=⌊10⌋=10\left\lfloor\frac{40}{2^2}\right\rfloor=\lfloor 10\rfloor=10⌊2240​⌋=⌊10⌋=10

Contribution: 1×10=101\times 10=101×10=10


Case p=3p=3p=3

Possible q<3q<3q<3 with gcd⁡(3,q)=1\gcd(3,q)=1gcd(3,q)=1:

  • q=1,2q=1,2q=1,2

Number of kkk:

⌊4032⌋=⌊409⌋=4\left\lfloor\frac{40}{3^2}\right\rfloor=\left\lfloor\frac{40}{9}\right\rfloor=4⌊3240​⌋=⌊940​⌋=4

Contribution: 2×4=82\times 4=82×4=8


Case p=4p=4p=4

Possible q<4q<4q<4 with gcd⁡(4,q)=1\gcd(4,q)=1gcd(4,q)=1:

  • q=1,3q=1,3q=1,3

Number of kkk:

⌊4042⌋=⌊4016⌋=2\left\lfloor\frac{40}{4^2}\right\rfloor=\left\lfloor\frac{40}{16}\right\rfloor=2⌊4240​⌋=⌊1640​⌋=2

Contribution: 2×2=42\times 2=42×2=4


Case p=5p=5p=5

Possible q<5q<5q<5 with gcd⁡(5,q)=1\gcd(5,q)=1gcd(5,q)=1:

  • q=1,2,3,4q=1,2,3,4q=1,2,3,4

Number of kkk:

⌊4052⌋=⌊4025⌋=1\left\lfloor\frac{40}{5^2}\right\rfloor=\left\lfloor\frac{40}{25}\right\rfloor=1⌊5240​⌋=⌊2540​⌋=1

Contribution: 4×1=44\times 1=44×1=4


Case p=6p=6p=6

Possible q<6q<6q<6 with gcd⁡(6,q)=1\gcd(6,q)=1gcd(6,q)=1:

  • q=1,5q=1,5q=1,5

Number of kkk:

⌊4062⌋=⌊4036⌋=1\left\lfloor\frac{40}{6^2}\right\rfloor=\left\lfloor\frac{40}{36}\right\rfloor=1⌊6240​⌋=⌊3640​⌋=1

Contribution: 2×1=22\times 1=22×1=2


  1. Total favorable selections
10+8+4+4+2=2810+8+4+4+2=2810+8+4+4+2=28

So the required probability is

289880=72470\frac{28}{9880}=\frac{7}{2470}988028​=24707​

Here,

m=7,n=2470m=7,\quad n=2470m=7,n=2470

Therefore,

m+n=7+2470=2477m+n=7+2470=2477m+n=7+2470=2477
  1. Comparison with stored answer

Stored correct answer = 247724772477

Our derived answer is also 247724772477. Hence they agree.

Next

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