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Limits Continuity and Differentiability question

2019 · 11 Jan · Shift 2 · Q35
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  5. /2019 · 11 Jan · Shift 2 · Q35

Limits Continuity and Differentiability question

2019 · 11 Jan · Shift 2 · Q35

JEE MainMathematicsLimits Continuity and DifferentiabilityMCQ+4 / −1
Let K be the set of all real values of x where the function f(x) = sin |x| – |x| + 2(x – π\piπ) cos |x| is not differentiable. Then the set K is equal to :
  1. A
    {0, π\piπ}
  2. B
    ϕ\phiϕ (an empty set)
  3. C
    { r }
  4. D
    {0}
View written solutionFree

Correct answer: B

We need the set of all real xxx where f(x)=sin⁡∣x∣−∣x∣+2(x−π)cos⁡∣x∣f(x)=\sin|x|-|x|+2(x-\pi)\cos|x|f(x)=sin∣x∣−∣x∣+2(x−π)cos∣x∣ is not differentiable.

The only possible trouble points come from the presence of ∣x∣|x|∣x∣, i.e. at x=0x=0x=0. For x≠0x\neq 0x=0, both ∣x∣|x|∣x∣ and cos⁡∣x∣,sin⁡∣x∣\cos|x|,\sin|x|cos∣x∣,sin∣x∣ are differentiable as compositions of differentiable functions.

So we only need to check differentiability at x=0x=0x=0.


1. Rewrite f(x)f(x)f(x) piecewise

Case 1: x>0x>0x>0

Then ∣x∣=x|x|=x∣x∣=x, so f(x)=sin⁡x−x+2(x−π)cos⁡x.f(x)=\sin x-x+2(x-\pi)\cos x.f(x)=sinx−x+2(x−π)cosx.

Differentiate: f′(x)=cos⁡x−1+2cos⁡x+2(x−π)(−sin⁡x).f'(x)=\cos x-1+2\cos x+2(x-\pi)(-\sin x).f′(x)=cosx−1+2cosx+2(x−π)(−sinx). So f′(x)=3cos⁡x−1−2(x−π)sin⁡x.f'(x)=3\cos x-1-2(x-\pi)\sin x.f′(x)=3cosx−1−2(x−π)sinx.

Hence the right-hand derivative at 000 is f+′(0)=3cos⁡0−1−2(0−π)sin⁡0=3−1=2.f'_+(0)=3\cos 0-1-2(0-\pi)\sin 0=3-1=2.f+′​(0)=3cos0−1−2(0−π)sin0=3−1=2.


Case 2: x<0x<0x<0

Then ∣x∣=−x|x|=-x∣x∣=−x, so f(x)=sin⁡(−x)−(−x)+2(x−π)cos⁡(−x).f(x)=\sin(-x)-(-x)+2(x-\pi)\cos(-x).f(x)=sin(−x)−(−x)+2(x−π)cos(−x). Using sin⁡(−x)=−sin⁡x\sin(-x)=-\sin xsin(−x)=−sinx and cos⁡(−x)=cos⁡x\cos(-x)=\cos xcos(−x)=cosx, f(x)=−sin⁡x+x+2(x−π)cos⁡x.f(x)=-\sin x+x+2(x-\pi)\cos x.f(x)=−sinx+x+2(x−π)cosx.

Differentiate: f′(x)=−cos⁡x+1+2cos⁡x+2(x−π)(−sin⁡x).f'(x)=-\cos x+1+2\cos x+2(x-\pi)(-\sin x).f′(x)=−cosx+1+2cosx+2(x−π)(−sinx). Thus f′(x)=cos⁡x+1−2(x−π)sin⁡x.f'(x)=\cos x+1-2(x-\pi)\sin x.f′(x)=cosx+1−2(x−π)sinx.

Hence the left-hand derivative at 000 is f−′(0)=cos⁡0+1−2(0−π)sin⁡0=1+1=2.f'_-(0)=\cos 0+1-2(0-\pi)\sin 0=1+1=2.f−′​(0)=cos0+1−2(0−π)sin0=1+1=2.


2. Compare left and right derivatives at x=0x=0x=0

We get f−′(0)=f+′(0)=2.f'_-(0)=f'_+(0)=2.f−′​(0)=f+′​(0)=2. Therefore fff is differentiable at x=0x=0x=0.


3. Check all other points

For every x≠0x\neq 0x=0, the function is a combination of differentiable functions, so it is differentiable there as well.

Thus there is no real value of xxx where fff is not differentiable.

Therefore, K=∅.K=\varnothing.K=∅.

So the correct option is B.


4. Comparison with stored correct answer

Stored correct answer: B

Our derived answer: B

They agree.

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