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Definite Integration question

2011 · Shift 0 · Q40
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Definite Integration question

2011 · Shift 0 · Q40

JEE MainMathematicsDefinite IntegrationMCQ+4 / −1
The value of ∫018log⁡(1+x)1+x2dx\int\limits_0^1 {{{8\log \left( {1 + x} \right)} \over {1 + {x^2}}}} dx0∫1​1+x28log(1+x)​dx is
  1. A
    π8log⁡2{\pi \over 8}\log 28π​log2
  2. B
    π2log⁡2{\pi \over 2}\log 22π​log2
  3. C
    log⁡2\log 2log2
  4. D
    πlog⁡2\pi \log 2πlog2
View written solutionFree

Correct answer: D

  1. Let I=∫018log⁡(1+x)1+x2 dx.I=\int_0^1 \frac{8\log(1+x)}{1+x^2}\,dx.I=∫01​1+x28log(1+x)​dx.

We need to evaluate this definite integral.

  1. Use the substitution x=tan⁡θ.x=\tan\theta.x=tanθ. Then dx=sec⁡2θ dθ,1+x2=1+tan⁡2θ=sec⁡2θ.dx=\sec^2\theta\,d\theta, \qquad 1+x^2=1+\tan^2\theta=\sec^2\theta.dx=sec2θdθ,1+x2=1+tan2θ=sec2θ. So, dx1+x2=dθ.\frac{dx}{1+x^2}=d\theta.1+x2dx​=dθ.

Also, when x=0x=0x=0, θ=0\theta=0θ=0, and when x=1x=1x=1, θ=π4\theta=\frac{\pi}{4}θ=4π​.

Hence, I=8∫0π/4log⁡(1+tan⁡θ) dθ.I=8\int_0^{\pi/4} \log(1+\tan\theta)\,d\theta.I=8∫0π/4​log(1+tanθ)dθ.

  1. Simplify 1+tan⁡θ1+\tan\theta1+tanθ: 1+tan⁡θ=sin⁡θ+cos⁡θcos⁡θ.1+\tan\theta=\frac{\sin\theta+\cos\theta}{\cos\theta}.1+tanθ=cosθsinθ+cosθ​. Thus, log⁡(1+tan⁡θ)=log⁡(sin⁡θ+cos⁡θ)−log⁡(cos⁡θ).\log(1+\tan\theta)=\log(\sin\theta+\cos\theta)-\log(\cos\theta).log(1+tanθ)=log(sinθ+cosθ)−log(cosθ). So, I=8∫0π/4log⁡(sin⁡θ+cos⁡θ) dθ−8∫0π/4log⁡(cos⁡θ) dθ.I=8\int_0^{\pi/4}\log(\sin\theta+\cos\theta)\,d\theta-8\int_0^{\pi/4}\log(\cos\theta)\,d\theta.I=8∫0π/4​log(sinθ+cosθ)dθ−8∫0π/4​log(cosθ)dθ.

  2. Use the identity sin⁡θ+cos⁡θ=2cos⁡(θ−π4).\sin\theta+\cos\theta=\sqrt{2}\cos\left(\theta-\frac{\pi}{4}\right).sinθ+cosθ=2​cos(θ−4π​). Therefore, log⁡(sin⁡θ+cos⁡θ)=12log⁡2+log⁡(cos⁡(θ−π4)).\log(\sin\theta+\cos\theta)=\frac12\log 2+\log\left(\cos\left(\theta-\frac{\pi}{4}\right)\right).log(sinθ+cosθ)=21​log2+log(cos(θ−4π​)). Hence,

=\int_0^{\pi/4}\left(\frac12\log 2+\log\left(\cos\left(\theta-\frac{\pi}{4}\right)\right)\right)d\theta.$$ So, $$=\frac{\pi}{8}\log 2+\int_0^{\pi/4}\log\left(\cos\left(\theta-\frac{\pi}{4}\right)\right)d\theta.$$ 5. In the last integral, put $$u=\frac{\pi}{4}-\theta \quad \Rightarrow \quad d\theta=-du.$$ As $\theta:0\to \frac{\pi}{4}$, we get $u:\frac{\pi}{4}\to 0$. Thus, $$\int_0^{\pi/4}\log\left(\cos\left(\theta-\frac{\pi}{4}\right)\right)d\theta =\int_0^{\pi/4}\log(\cos u)\,du.$$ Therefore, $$\int_0^{\pi/4}\log(\sin\theta+\cos\theta)\,d\theta =\frac{\pi}{8}\log 2+\int_0^{\pi/4}\log(\cos u)\,du.$$ 6. Substitute this back into $I$: $$I=8\left(\frac{\pi}{8}\log 2+\int_0^{\pi/4}\log(\cos u)\,du\right)-8\int_0^{\pi/4}\log(\cos\theta)\,d\theta.$$ The two cosine integrals cancel, giving $$I=8\cdot \frac{\pi}{8}\log 2=\pi\log 2.$$ 7. Therefore, $$\boxed{\int_0^1 \frac{8\log(1+x)}{1+x^2}\,dx=\pi\log 2.}$$ 8. Comparing with the options: - A: $\frac{\pi}{8}\log 2$ - B: $\frac{\pi}{2}\log 2$ - C: $\log 2$ - D: $\pi\log 2$ So the correct option is $$\boxed{\text{D}}.$$ 9. Comparison with stored correct answer: Stored correct answer = D. Our derived answer = D. They agree.
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