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Electrostatics question

2018 · 16 Apr · Shift 1 · Q57
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Electrostatics question

2018 · 16 Apr · Shift 1 · Q57

JEE MainPhysicsElectrostaticsMCQ+4 / −1
Two identical conducting spheres A and B, carry equal charge. They are separated by a distance much larger than their diameters, and the force between theis F. A third identical conducting sphere, C, is uncharged. Sphere C is first touhed to A, then to B, and then removed. As a result, the force between A and B would be equal to :
  1. A
    F
  2. B
    3F4{{3F} \over 4}43F​
  3. C
    3F8{{3F} \over 8}83F​
  4. D
    F2{{F} \over 2}2F​
View written solutionFree

Correct answer: C

  1. Initial charges on spheres AAA and BBB

Since the two identical conducting spheres carry equal charge, let each initially have charge qqq.

So, qA=q,qB=qq_A = q, \qquad q_B = qqA​=q,qB​=q

They are far apart, so we can treat them as point charges. The initial force between them is F=14πε0q2r2F = \frac{1}{4\pi\varepsilon_0}\frac{q^2}{r^2}F=4πε0​1​r2q2​

where rrr is the separation.


  1. Sphere CCC is initially uncharged and touched to AAA

Sphere CCC is identical to AAA, so when two identical conducting spheres touch, charge gets shared equally.

Before touching: qA=q,qC=0q_A = q, \qquad q_C = 0qA​=q,qC​=0

Total charge on AAA and CCC: q+0=qq+0=qq+0=q

After touching, each gets q2\frac{q}{2}2q​

So now, qA=q2,qC=q2q_A = \frac{q}{2}, \qquad q_C = \frac{q}{2}qA​=2q​,qC​=2q​


  1. Now sphere CCC is touched to BBB

Before touching BBB: qB=q,qC=q2q_B = q, \qquad q_C = \frac{q}{2}qB​=q,qC​=2q​

Total charge on BBB and CCC: q+q2=3q2q + \frac{q}{2} = \frac{3q}{2}q+2q​=23q​

Since BBB and CCC are identical, after touching they share equally: qB=qC=12⋅3q2=3q4q_B = q_C = \frac{1}{2}\cdot \frac{3q}{2} = \frac{3q}{4}qB​=qC​=21​⋅23q​=43q​

Thus after removal of CCC, qA=q2,qB=3q4q_A = \frac{q}{2}, \qquad q_B = \frac{3q}{4}qA​=2q​,qB​=43q​


  1. New force between AAA and BBB

The new electrostatic force is F′=14πε0(q2)(3q4)r2F' = \frac{1}{4\pi\varepsilon_0}\frac{\left(\frac{q}{2}\right)\left(\frac{3q}{4}\right)}{r^2}F′=4πε0​1​r2(2q​)(43q​)​

F′=14πε03q28r2F' = \frac{1}{4\pi\varepsilon_0}\frac{3q^2}{8r^2}F′=4πε0​1​8r23q2​

But initially, F=14πε0q2r2F = \frac{1}{4\pi\varepsilon_0}\frac{q^2}{r^2}F=4πε0​1​r2q2​

Therefore, F′=38FF' = \frac{3}{8}FF′=83​F


  1. Checking options
  • A: FFF
  • B: 3F4\frac{3F}{4}43F​
  • C: 3F8\frac{3F}{8}83F​
  • D: F2\frac{F}{2}2F​

Hence the correct option is: 3F8\boxed{\frac{3F}{8}}83F​​

So, Option C is correct.

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