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Functions question

2024 · 6 Apr · Shift 2 · Q30
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Functions question

2024 · 6 Apr · Shift 2 · Q30

JEE MainMathematicsFunctionsMCQ+4 / −1
If the function f(x)=(1x)2x;x>0f(x)=\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)^{2 x} ; x\gt 0f(x)=(x1​)2x;x>0 attains the maximum value at x=1ex=\frac{1}{\mathrm{e}}x=e1​ then :
  1. A
    eπ<πe\mathrm{e}^\pi\lt \pi^{\mathrm{e}}eπ<πe
  2. B
    e2π<(2π)e\mathrm{e}^{2 \pi}\lt (2 \pi)^{\mathrm{e}}e2π<(2π)e
  3. C
    (2e)π>π(2e)(2 e)^\pi\gt \pi^{(2 e)}(2e)π>π(2e)
  4. D
    eπ>πe\mathrm{e}^\pi\gt \pi^{\mathrm{e}}eπ>πe
View written solutionFree

Correct answer: D

  1. Given function

We have f(x)=(1x)2x=x−2x,x>0.f(x)=\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)^{2x}=x^{-2x}, \qquad x>0.f(x)=(x1​)2x=x−2x,x>0.

We are told that this function attains its maximum at x=1e.x=\frac{1}{e}.x=e1​.


  1. Take logarithm to analyze the function

Let y=f(x)=x−2x.y=f(x)=x^{-2x}.y=f(x)=x−2x. Then ln⁡y=ln⁡(x−2x)=−2xln⁡x.\ln y=\ln\left(x^{-2x}\right)=-2x\ln x.lny=ln(x−2x)=−2xlnx.

So maximizing f(x)f(x)f(x) is equivalent to maximizing ϕ(x)=−2xln⁡x.\phi(x)=-2x\ln x.ϕ(x)=−2xlnx.

Differentiate: ϕ′(x)=−2(ln⁡x+1).\phi'(x)=-2(\ln x+1).ϕ′(x)=−2(lnx+1).

Set ϕ′(x)=0\phi'(x)=0ϕ′(x)=0: −2(ln⁡x+1)=0-2(\ln x+1)=0−2(lnx+1)=0 ln⁡x=−1\ln x=-1lnx=−1 x=1e.x=\frac{1}{e}.x=e1​.

Also, ϕ′′(x)=−2x<0(x>0),\phi''(x)=-\frac{2}{x}<0 \quad (x>0),ϕ′′(x)=−x2​<0(x>0), so this critical point is indeed a maximum.

Thus the given statement is correct.


  1. Use the maximum property

Since f(x)f(x)f(x) is maximum at x=1ex=\frac{1}{e}x=e1​, for every x>0x>0x>0, f(1e)>f(x)f\left(\frac{1}{e}\right)>f(x)f(e1​)>f(x) for x≠1ex\neq \frac{1}{e}x=e1​.

Now, f(1e)=(e)2/e=e2/e.f\left(\frac{1}{e}\right)=\left(e\right)^{2/e}=e^{2/e}.f(e1​)=(e)2/e=e2/e.

Choose a suitable value of xxx to compare eee and π\piπ. Take x=1π.x=\frac{1}{\pi}.x=π1​. Then f(1π)=(π)2/π=π2/π.f\left(\frac{1}{\pi}\right)=\left(\pi\right)^{2/\pi}=\pi^{2/\pi}.f(π1​)=(π)2/π=π2/π.

Since 1π≠1e\frac{1}{\pi}\neq \frac{1}{e}π1​=e1​, we get e2/e>π2/π.e^{2/e}>\pi^{2/\pi}.e2/e>π2/π.


  1. Convert this inequality

Raise both sides to the power eπ2>0\dfrac{e\pi}{2}>02eπ​>0:

(e2/e)eπ/2>(π2/π)eπ/2.\left(e^{2/e}\right)^{e\pi/2}>\left(\pi^{2/\pi}\right)^{e\pi/2}.(e2/e)eπ/2>(π2/π)eπ/2.

Simplifying, eπ>πe.e^{\pi}>\pi^{e}.eπ>πe.

This matches option D.


  1. Check options
  • A: eπ<πee^\pi<\pi^eeπ<πe — false, opposite of what we proved.
  • B: e2π<(2π)ee^{2\pi}<(2\pi)^ee2π<(2π)e — not implied; in fact this is false.
  • C: (2e)π>π2e(2e)^\pi>\pi^{2e}(2e)π>π2e — not generally following from the given result.
  • D: eπ>πee^\pi>\pi^eeπ>πe — true.

  1. Final answer

The correct option is D.\boxed{D}.D​.

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