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Functions question

2021 · 25 Jul · Shift 1 · Q32
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  5. /2021 · 25 Jul · Shift 1 · Q32

Functions question

2021 · 25 Jul · Shift 1 · Q32

JEE MainMathematicsFunctionsMCQ+4 / −1
Let g : N →\to→ N be defined as g(3n + 1) = 3n + 2, g(3n + 2) = 3n + 3, g(3n + 3) = 3n + 1, for all n ≥\ge≥ 0. Then which of the following statements is true?
  1. A
    There exists an onto function f : N →\to→ N such that fog = f
  2. B
    There exists a one-one function f : N →\to→ N such that fog = f
  3. C
    gogog = g
  4. D
    There exists a function : f : N →\to→ N such that gof = f
View written solutionFree

Correct answer: A

  1. Understand the function ggg

The map g:N→Ng: \mathbb N \to \mathbb Ng:N→N is defined in cycles of length 333:

g(3n+1)=3n+2,g(3n+2)=3n+3,g(3n+3)=3n+1 g(3n+1)=3n+2,\quad g(3n+2)=3n+3,\quad g(3n+3)=3n+1g(3n+1)=3n+2,g(3n+2)=3n+3,g(3n+3)=3n+1

for all n≥0n\ge 0n≥0.

So on each block {3n+1,3n+2,3n+3}\{3n+1,3n+2,3n+3\}{3n+1,3n+2,3n+3}, the function ggg acts as

3n+1→3n+2→3n+3→3n+1.3n+1 \to 3n+2 \to 3n+3 \to 3n+1.3n+1→3n+2→3n+3→3n+1.

Thus ggg is a permutation of N\mathbb NN made of disjoint 3-cycles.

Hence,

g3=id⁡.g^3 = \operatorname{id}.g3=id.

That is,

g∘g∘g=I.g\circ g\circ g = I.g∘g∘g=I.
  1. Check option C: g∘g∘g=gg\circ g\circ g = gg∘g∘g=g

But we just found that

g3=I,g^3 = I,g3=I,

not ggg.

Since g≠Ig \ne Ig=I, we have

g3≠g.g^3 \ne g.g3=g.

So Option C is false.


  1. Check option A: There exists an onto function f:N→Nf: \mathbb N \to \mathbb Nf:N→N such that f∘g=ff\circ g = ff∘g=f

Condition f∘g=ff\circ g=ff∘g=f means

f(g(x))=f(x)∀x∈N.f(g(x))=f(x)\quad \forall x\in \mathbb N.f(g(x))=f(x)∀x∈N.

Since ggg cycles elements in each triple,

f(3n+1)=f(3n+2)=f(3n+3)f(3n+1)=f(3n+2)=f(3n+3)f(3n+1)=f(3n+2)=f(3n+3)

for every n≥0n\ge 0n≥0.

So fff must be constant on each block {3n+1,3n+2,3n+3}\{3n+1,3n+2,3n+3\}{3n+1,3n+2,3n+3}.

Now define

f(3n+1)=f(3n+2)=f(3n+3)=n+1.f(3n+1)=f(3n+2)=f(3n+3)=n+1.f(3n+1)=f(3n+2)=f(3n+3)=n+1.

Then:

  • each block maps to one natural number,
  • every natural number mmm is attained by the block corresponding to n=m−1n=m-1n=m−1.

So fff is onto.

Also, since fff is constant on each 3-cycle, clearly

f(g(x))=f(x)f(g(x))=f(x)f(g(x))=f(x)

for all xxx.

Hence Option A is true.


  1. Check option B: There exists a one-one function f:N→Nf: \mathbb N \to \mathbb Nf:N→N such that f∘g=ff\circ g=ff∘g=f

If f∘g=ff\circ g=ff∘g=f, then as above,

f(3n+1)=f(3n+2)=f(3n+3)f(3n+1)=f(3n+2)=f(3n+3)f(3n+1)=f(3n+2)=f(3n+3)

for every nnn.

In particular,

f(1)=f(2)=f(3),f(1)=f(2)=f(3),f(1)=f(2)=f(3),

so fff cannot be injective.

Therefore Option B is false.


  1. Check option D: There exists a function f:N→Nf: \mathbb N \to \mathbb Nf:N→N such that g∘f=fg\circ f=fg∘f=f

Condition g∘f=fg\circ f=fg∘f=f means

g(f(x))=f(x)∀x∈N.g(f(x))=f(x)\quad \forall x\in \mathbb N.g(f(x))=f(x)∀x∈N.

So every value in the image of fff must be a fixed point of ggg.

Let us see whether ggg has any fixed point.

Suppose g(k)=kg(k)=kg(k)=k. Then kkk must be one of the forms:

  • k=3n+1k=3n+1k=3n+1, then g(k)=3n+2≠kg(k)=3n+2\ne kg(k)=3n+2=k,
  • k=3n+2k=3n+2k=3n+2, then g(k)=3n+3≠kg(k)=3n+3\ne kg(k)=3n+3=k,
  • k=3n+3k=3n+3k=3n+3, then g(k)=3n+1≠kg(k)=3n+1\ne kg(k)=3n+1=k.

So ggg has no fixed point.

Hence there is no y∈Ny\in \mathbb Ny∈N such that g(y)=yg(y)=yg(y)=y. Therefore no function fff can satisfy g∘f=fg\circ f=fg∘f=f.

So Option D is false.


  1. Conclusion

Only Option A is true.

A\boxed{A}A​
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