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Complex Numbers question

2018 · 15 Apr · Shift 1 · Q30
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Complex Numbers question

2018 · 15 Apr · Shift 1 · Q30

JEE MainMathematicsComplex NumbersMCQ+4 / −1
The set of all α∈\alpha \inα∈ R, for which w =1+(1−8α)z1−z{{1 + \left( {1 - 8\alpha } \right)z} \over {1 - z}}1−z1+(1−8α)z​ is purely imaginary number, for all z ∈\in∈ C satisfying |z| = 1 and Re z eee 1, is :
  1. A
    an empty set
  2. B
    {0}
  3. C
    {0,14,−14}\left\{ {0,{1 \over 4}, - {1 \over 4}} \right\}{0,41​,−41​}
  4. D
    equal to R
View written solutionFree

Correct answer: B

Let w=1+(1−8α)z1−z,∣z∣=1, z≠1w=\frac{1+(1-8\alpha)z}{1-z},\qquad |z|=1,\, z\neq 1w=1−z1+(1−8α)z​,∣z∣=1,z=1 and we want all real α\alphaα such that www is purely imaginary for every such zzz.

We must find when ℜ(w)=0\Re(w)=0ℜ(w)=0 for all zzz on the unit circle except z=1z=1z=1.


1. Use the standard substitution for points on the unit circle

If ∣z∣=1|z|=1∣z∣=1 and z≠1z\neq 1z=1, write z=eiθ,θ∈R, θ≠2kπ.z=e^{i\theta}, \qquad \theta\in \mathbb R,\ \theta\neq 2k\pi.z=eiθ,θ∈R, θ=2kπ.

Then 1+z1−z\frac{1+z}{1-z}1−z1+z​ is purely imaginary. Let us verify this carefully.

Using z=eiθ,z=e^{i\theta},z=eiθ, we get 1+z=1+eiθ=2eiθ/2cos⁡θ2,1+z=1+e^{i\theta}=2e^{i\theta/2}\cos\frac{\theta}{2},1+z=1+eiθ=2eiθ/2cos2θ​, 1−z=1−eiθ=−2ieiθ/2sin⁡θ2.1-z=1-e^{i\theta}=-2ie^{i\theta/2}\sin\frac{\theta}{2}.1−z=1−eiθ=−2ieiθ/2sin2θ​. So, 1+z1−z=2eiθ/2cos⁡(θ/2)−2ieiθ/2sin⁡(θ/2)=icot⁡θ2,\frac{1+z}{1-z}=\frac{2e^{i\theta/2}\cos(\theta/2)}{-2ie^{i\theta/2}\sin(\theta/2)}=i\cot\frac{\theta}{2},1−z1+z​=−2ieiθ/2sin(θ/2)2eiθ/2cos(θ/2)​=icot2θ​, which is purely imaginary.


2. Rewrite the given expression

We have w=1+(1−8α)z1−z.w=\frac{1+(1-8\alpha)z}{1-z}.w=1−z1+(1−8α)z​. Rewrite the numerator: 1+(1−8α)z=(1−z)+2z−8αz1+(1-8\alpha)z=(1-z)+2z-8\alpha z1+(1−8α)z=(1−z)+2z−8αz which is not especially convenient.

A better way is to split it as 1+(1−8α)z=(1+z)−8αz.1+(1-8\alpha)z=(1+z)-8\alpha z.1+(1−8α)z=(1+z)−8αz. Thus, w=1+z1−z−8αz1−z.w=\frac{1+z}{1-z}-8\alpha\frac{z}{1-z}.w=1−z1+z​−8α1−zz​.

Now simplify z1−z\dfrac{z}{1-z}1−zz​ using z=(z−1)+1,z=(z-1)+1,z=(z−1)+1, so z1−z=(z−1)+11−z=z−11−z+11−z=−1+11−z.\frac{z}{1-z}=\frac{(z-1)+1}{1-z}=\frac{z-1}{1-z}+\frac{1}{1-z}=-1+\frac{1}{1-z}.1−zz​=1−z(z−1)+1​=1−zz−1​+1−z1​=−1+1−z1​. But an even cleaner identity comes from 1+z1−z=1−z+2z1−z=1+2z1−z,\frac{1+z}{1-z}=\frac{1-z+2z}{1-z}=1+\frac{2z}{1-z},1−z1+z​=1−z1−z+2z​=1+1−z2z​, so z1−z=12(1+z1−z−1).\frac{z}{1-z}=\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{1+z}{1-z}-1\right).1−zz​=21​(1−z1+z​−1). Therefore, w=1+z1−z−8α⋅12(1+z1−z−1).w=\frac{1+z}{1-z}-8\alpha\cdot \frac12\left(\frac{1+z}{1-z}-1\right).w=1−z1+z​−8α⋅21​(1−z1+z​−1). Hence, w=(1−4α)1+z1−z+4α.w=\left(1-4\alpha\right)\frac{1+z}{1-z}+4\alpha.w=(1−4α)1−z1+z​+4α.


3. Analyze real and imaginary parts

From Step 1, 1+z1−z\frac{1+z}{1-z}1−z1+z​ is purely imaginary for all ∣z∣=1,z≠1|z|=1, z\neq 1∣z∣=1,z=1.

So in w=(1−4α)1+z1−z+4α,w=\left(1-4\alpha\right)\frac{1+z}{1-z}+4\alpha,w=(1−4α)1−z1+z​+4α,

  • the first term is purely imaginary (because 1−4α∈R1-4\alpha\in\mathbb R1−4α∈R),
  • the second term 4α4\alpha4α is purely real.

Therefore, ℜ(w)=4α.\Re(w)=4\alpha.ℜ(w)=4α. For www to be purely imaginary for all allowed zzz, we must have 4α=0  ⟹  α=0.4\alpha=0 \implies \alpha=0.4α=0⟹α=0.


4. Check the value

If α=0\alpha=0α=0, then w=1+z1−z,w=\frac{1+z}{1-z},w=1−z1+z​, which we already proved is purely imaginary for all ∣z∣=1,z≠1|z|=1, z\neq 1∣z∣=1,z=1.

So the required set is {0}.\{0\}.{0}.


5. Match with options

Option B is {0}\{0\}{0}.

So the correct answer is: B\boxed{\text{B}}B​

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