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Application of Derivatives question

2020 · 2 Sep · Shift 2 · Q42
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  5. /2020 · 2 Sep · Shift 2 · Q42

Application of Derivatives question

2020 · 2 Sep · Shift 2 · Q42

JEE MainMathematicsApplication of DerivativesMCQ+4 / −1
Let f : (–1, ∞\infty∞) →\to→ R be defined by f(0) = 1 and f(x) = 1xlog⁡e(1+x){1 \over x}{\log _e}\left( {1 + x} \right)x1​loge​(1+x), x eee 0. Then the function f :
  1. A
    decreases in (–1, ∞\infty∞)
  2. B
    decreases in (–1, 0) and increases in (0, ∞\infty∞)
  3. C
    increases in (–1, ∞\infty∞)
  4. D
    increases in (–1, 0) and decreases in (0, ∞\infty∞)
View written solutionFree

Correct answer: A

  1. Given function

We have

f(x)={1,x=0,ln⁡(1+x)x,x≠0,f(x)= \begin{cases} 1, & x=0,\\[4pt] \dfrac{\ln(1+x)}{x}, & x\neq 0, \end{cases}f(x)=⎩⎨⎧​1,xln(1+x)​,​x=0,x=0,​

with domain (−1,∞)(-1,\infty)(−1,∞).

We need to determine where fff is increasing/decreasing.


  1. Differentiate for x≠0x\neq 0x=0

For x≠0x\neq 0x=0,

f(x)=ln⁡(1+x)x.f(x)=\frac{\ln(1+x)}{x}.f(x)=xln(1+x)​.

Using the quotient rule,

f′(x)=x⋅11+x−ln⁡(1+x)x2=x1+x−ln⁡(1+x)x2.f'(x)=\frac{x\cdot \frac{1}{1+x}-\ln(1+x)}{x^2} =\frac{\frac{x}{1+x}-\ln(1+x)}{x^2}.f′(x)=x2x⋅1+x1​−ln(1+x)​=x21+xx​−ln(1+x)​.

So the sign of f′(x)f'(x)f′(x) depends on

ϕ(x)=x1+x−ln⁡(1+x).\phi(x)=\frac{x}{1+x}-\ln(1+x).ϕ(x)=1+xx​−ln(1+x).

Since x2>0x^2>0x2>0 for x≠0x\neq 0x=0, the sign of f′(x)f'(x)f′(x) is the sign of ϕ(x)\phi(x)ϕ(x).


  1. Study the sign of ϕ(x)\phi(x)ϕ(x)

Let

ϕ(x)=x1+x−ln⁡(1+x),x>−1.\phi(x)=\frac{x}{1+x}-\ln(1+x), \qquad x>-1.ϕ(x)=1+xx​−ln(1+x),x>−1.

Differentiate:

ϕ′(x)=1(1+x)2−11+x=1−(1+x)(1+x)2=−x(1+x)2.\phi'(x)=\frac{1}{(1+x)^2}-\frac{1}{1+x} =\frac{1-(1+x)}{(1+x)^2} =\frac{-x}{(1+x)^2}.ϕ′(x)=(1+x)21​−1+x1​=(1+x)21−(1+x)​=(1+x)2−x​.

Now:

  • If x∈(−1,0)x\in(-1,0)x∈(−1,0), then x<0x<0x<0, so −x>0-x>0−x>0, hence ϕ′(x)>0.\phi'(x)>0.ϕ′(x)>0. Thus ϕ\phiϕ is increasing on (−1,0)(-1,0)(−1,0).
  • If x∈(0,∞)x\in(0,\infty)x∈(0,∞), then x>0x>0x>0, so −x<0-x<0−x<0, hence ϕ′(x)<0.\phi'(x)<0.ϕ′(x)<0. Thus ϕ\phiϕ is decreasing on (0,∞)(0,\infty)(0,∞).

Also,

ϕ(0)=01+0−ln⁡(1)=0.\phi(0)=\frac{0}{1+0}-\ln(1)=0.ϕ(0)=1+00​−ln(1)=0.

Since ϕ\phiϕ increases up to 000 and decreases after 000, its maximum occurs at x=0x=0x=0, with maximum value 000. Therefore,

ϕ(x)≤0for all x>−1,\phi(x)\le 0 \quad \text{for all } x>-1,ϕ(x)≤0for all x>−1,

and for x≠0x\neq 0x=0,

ϕ(x)<0.\phi(x)<0.ϕ(x)<0.

Hence,

f′(x)=ϕ(x)x2<0for all x∈(−1,0)∪(0,∞).f'(x)=\frac{\phi(x)}{x^2}<0 \quad \text{for all } x\in(-1,0)\cup(0,\infty).f′(x)=x2ϕ(x)​<0for all x∈(−1,0)∪(0,∞).

So fff is decreasing on both intervals (−1,0)(-1,0)(−1,0) and (0,∞)(0,\infty)(0,∞).


  1. Check behavior at x=0x=0x=0

We should verify that the function remains decreasing across x=0x=0x=0.

Using the standard limit,

lim⁡x→0ln⁡(1+x)x=1=f(0).\lim_{x\to 0}\frac{\ln(1+x)}{x}=1=f(0).x→0lim​xln(1+x)​=1=f(0).

So fff is continuous at x=0x=0x=0.

Since it is decreasing on both sides of 000 and continuous at 000, the function is decreasing on the entire domain (−1,∞)(-1,\infty)(−1,∞).

(Indeed, for x<0x<0x<0, f(x)>1f(x)>1f(x)>1, and for x>0x>0x>0, f(x)<1f(x)<1f(x)<1, consistent with overall decrease.)


  1. Evaluate options
  • A: decreases in (−1,∞)(-1,\infty)(−1,∞) ✅
  • B: decreases in (−1,0)(-1,0)(−1,0) and increases in (0,∞)(0,\infty)(0,∞) ❌
  • C: increases in (−1,∞)(-1,\infty)(−1,∞) ❌
  • D: increases in (−1,0)(-1,0)(−1,0) and decreases in (0,∞)(0,\infty)(0,∞) ❌

Therefore, the correct option is

A\boxed{\text{A}}A​
  1. Comparison with stored answer

Stored correct answer: A

My derived answer: A

They agree.

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